Mercurial Essays

Free Essays & Assignment Examples

Questions with Explanation

Q1: If an Ethernet port on router was assigned an IP address of 172. 16. 112. 1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet? A. 1024 B. 2046 C. 4094 D. 4096 E. 8190 Answer: C Explanation: Given IP address of 172. 16. 112. 1 / 20, subnet mask: 255. 255. 240. 0 max. num of hosts =(( 2^12) -2 ) = 4096-2 = 4094 Q2. :An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement will combine all four of these statements into a single statements that will have exactly the same effect? A. access-list 10 permit 172. 29. 16. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 B. ccess-list 10 permit 172. 29. 16. 0 0. 0. 1. 255 C. access-list 10 permit 172. 29. 16. 0 0. 0. 3. 255 D. access-list 10 permit 172. 29. 16. 0 0. 0. 15. 255 E. access-list 10 permit 172. 29. 0. 0 0. 0. 255. 255 Answer: C Explanation: 172. 29. 16. 0 is an aggregate address for those 4 networks. If you would write all these addresses in binary form and will mark the equal part, than you will see that it is 172. 29. 16. 0. Q3. Refer to the exhibit , what is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2? A. 172. 1. 0. 0/22 B. 172. 1. 0. 0/21 C. 172. 1. 4. 0/22 D. 72. 1. 4. 0/24 172. 1. 5. 0/24 172. 1. 6. 0/24 172. 1. 7. 0/24 E. 172. 1. 4. 0/25 172. 1. 4. 128/25 172. 1. 5. 0/24 172. 1. 6. 0/24172. 1. 7. 0/24 Answer : C Explanation:Route Summarization Overview:In large internetworks, hundreds, or even thousands, of network addresses can exist. It is often problematic for routers to maintain this volume of routes in their routing tables. Route summarization (also called route aggregation or supernetting) can reduce the number of routes that a router must maintain, because it is a method of representing a series of network numbers in a single summary address.

For example, in the figure above, router D can either send four routing update entries or summarize the four addresses into a single network number. If router D summarizes the information into asingle network number entry, the following things happen: 1. Bandwidth is saved on the link between routers D and E. 2. Router E needs to maintain only one route and therefore saves memory. 3. Router E also saves CPU resources, because it evaluates packets against fewer entries in its routing table. A summary route is announced by the summarizing router as long as at least one specific route in its routing table matches the summary route.

We Will Write a Custom Essay Specifically
For You For Only $13.90/page!

order now

Q4. Which routing protocols can be used within the enterprise network shown in the diagram? (Choose three. ) A. RIP v1 B. RIP v2 C. IGRP D. OSPF E. BGP F. EIGRP Answer: B, D, F Explanation:In this network there are IP subnets which use variable length subnet masks. RIP V2,OSPF and EIGRP are the interior routing protocols that support VLSM. Q5. Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the exhibit has just been installed. Host B can access the internet, but it is unable to ping host C. What is the problem with this configuration? A. Host B should be in VLAN 13 B.

The address of host C is incorrect. C. The gateway for host B is in a different subnet than the host is on. D. The switch port that sends VLAN 13 frames from the switch to the router is shut down. E. The switch port connected to the router is incorrectly configured as an access port. Answer: B Explanation: The Fa0/0. 13 interface of the router is the subinterface used for VLAN 13. The IP address of this interface is 172. 19. 13. 254, so all devices in VLAN 13 will have their default gateway set to this 172. 19. 13. 254 which means that all devices in VLAN13 need to be in the 172. 9. 13. 0/24 subnet. As can be seen in the output above, Host C is in VLAN 13 but its IP address has been incorrectly configured for the 172. 19. 14. 0/24 subnet. Q6. The user of Host1 wants to ping the DSL modern/router at 192. 168. 1. 254. Based on the Host1 ARP table that is shown in the exhibit, what will Host1 do? A. send Layer 3 broadcast packets to which the DSL modern/router responds B. send a unicast ARP packet to the DSL modern/router C. send a Layer 2 broadcast that is received by Host2, the switch, and the DSL modern/router D. end unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modern/router Answer: D Explanation : Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network protocol, which maps a network layer protocol address to a data link layer hardware address. For example, ARP is used to resolve IP address to the corresponding Ethernet Address. A host in an Ethernet network can communicate with another host,only if it knows the Ethernet address (MAC address) of that host. The higher level protocols like IP use a different kind of addressing scheme like (IP address) from the lower level hardware addressing scheme like MAC address.

ARP is used to get the Ethernet address of a host from its IP address. ARP is extensively used by all the hosts in an Ethernet network. In this case there is already an entry for this IP address,Meaning this host already knows the MAC to IP address mapping for this destination so there is no need to send out an ARP request instead it will send the ICMP packet directly to 192. 168. 1. 254 via unicast. Q7. An internetwork has been configured as shown in the diagram, with both routers using EIGRP routing for AS 44. Users on the Branch router are unable to reach any of the subnets on the HQ router.

Which of the following commands is necessary to fix this problem.? A. Branch(config-router)# version 2 B. Branch(config-router)# no auto-summary C. Branch(config-router)# redistribute eigrp 44 D. Branch(config-router)# EIGRP log-neighbor-changes E. Branch(config-router)# default-information originate Explanation:By default, EIGRP will auto-summarize IP information at the network boundaries. In this example, the 192. 168. 10. 0 network is subnetted into 6 separate networks. Therefore, each router will only advertise the 192. 168. 10. 0/24 network to each other by default.

To disable this function and transmit sub-prefix routing information across classful network boundaries, auto summarization must be disabled. Incorrect Answers: A. There is only one version of EIGRP. C. Based on the diagram, each router is already configured for EIGRP 44. D. This will have no impact on the routes. E. This will generate a default route, which will be advertised to the other router. However, a default route is not needed, as the individual subnets need to be advertised,not a default route. Q8. Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches.

The host in VLANs 10 and 15 on SW11 are able to communicate . The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem? A. The FA0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk C. Atleast on port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 nees to be configured as an access link on both switches E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on SW12.

Answer : B Explanation: One of the most remarkable features of VLANs is that they can span multiple interconnected switches. VLAN traffic is carried from switch to switch over interfaces called trunks. These trunk links must be at least 100Mbps because the traffic must carry all the VLAN traffic from the access ports. Just as access ports have a single VLAN assigned to them, trunk ports essentially have all VLANs assigned to them. As frames traverse a trunk link, the VLAN identifier is added to the ethernet frame. The receiving switch uses the VLAN identifier and sends the frames out only the access ports that have that VLAN assigned to them.

As the frame is sent out the interface, the VLAN identifier is removed, which gives the illusion to the end devices that the entire process is transparent. The first step to configuring a trunk link is deciding which type of trunk you want to use. For instance, if you are connecting to a non-Cisco switch, you have to use a standard trunk VLAN tagging method such as IEEE 802. 1q. In addition, certain models of Cisco switches (such as the Catalyst 2950) support only 802. 1q trunking, so make sure you research the capabilities of your switch model before configuring the interfaces.

To configure a trunk port, navigate to the interface that is connected to the other switch. On models that support ISL and 802. 1q trunking, you must first specify which VLAN tagging you want to use with the switchport trunk encapsulation command, as shown here: Switch(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/24 Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Notice the syntax starts with switchport trunk instead of switchport access (from the VLAN configurations) because this interface is being configured as a trunk to carry all VLANs.

With the trunk encapsulation configured, you are ready to enable the interface to begin forwarding all VLAN traffic. The port, however, is still operating as an access port until you specifically configure the interface to switch to trunking mode. To set this interface into a permanent trunking state, you must also type the following command: Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk Q9. Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates that there is a Layer 1 problem? A. Serial0/1 is up,line protocol is up B. Serial0/1 is up,line protocol is down C. Serial0/1 is down,line protocol is down D.

Serial0/1 is administratively down,line protocol is down Answer C: Explanation :When the physical interface itself is down, then the problem is related to layer 1. When it is up, but the line protocol is down then the problem is related to layer 2. Q10. When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link? A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk. B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command. C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.

D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command. Explanation:By default, all VLANs are allowed over a trunk at all times. This is true for every Cisco IOS switch that is capable of VLAN trunking. Q11. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown? A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic. B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router. C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172. 16. 3. 1 from a DHCP server.

D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud. E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172. 16. 3. 1 was learned through Inverse ARP. Answer: E Explanation:Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address.

With Inverse ARP, the router knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address. When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically.

Therefore, no static address mapping is required. Q12. Which one of the following varieties of NAT utilizes different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single globally registered IP address? A. Static NAT B. Dynamic NAT C. Overloading D. Overlapping E. Port loading Answer: C Explanation:Port address translation, or NAT overloading, uses transport layer port information to dynamically create NAT entries. This is also known as one to many network address translation. Incorrect Answers: A. Static NAT is known as one to one NAT, and is used to map a single IP address to a single registered IP address.

It is often used for servers that need to be accessed via the Internet. B, D: This is the incorrect term, and is not used. Q13. Which connections allow the use of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three. ) A. Switch to host B. Switch to switch C. hub to hub D. Switch to hub E. host to host Answer : A ,B ,E Explanation: Based on the output shown, this interface is configured to operate in full duplex mode. Full-duplex is a data communications term that refers to the ability to send and receive data at the same time. Legacy Ethernet is half-duplex, meaning information can move in only one direction at a time.

In a totally switched network, nodes only communicate with the switch and never directly with each other. Switched networks also employ either twisted pair or fiber optic cabling, both of which use separate conductors for sending and receiving data. In this type of environment, Ethernet stations can forgo the collision detection process and transmit at will, since they are the only potential devices that can access the medium. This allows end stations to transmit to the switch at the same time that the switch transmits to them, achieving a collision-free environment.

Q14. Which of the following are characteristics of a Frame Relay point-to-point subinterface? (Choose two. ) A. Requires a use of Inverse ARP. B. Resolves NBMA split horizon issues C. Requires use of the frame-relay map command D. Maps a single IP subnet per DLCI E.. Maps a single IP subnet across multiple DLCIs. Answer: B, D Explanation:B is correct because only one DLCI can be configured per point-to-point subinterface. The command ‘frame-relay interface-dlci’ associates the selected point-to point subinterface with only one DLCI.

Subinterfaces were originally created to take care of split-horizon issues from distance vector routing protocols over non-broadcast multiple access networks, because split horizon prevents routing updates received on one interface from retransmitting out onto the same interface. This is true even if the routing update is received on one frame relay PVC destined out to another frame relay PVC! By partitioning the frame relay network into numerous point-to point networks using subinterfaces; each new point-to-point subnetwork gets their own network number assigned.

Therefore, the routed protocol views each subnetwork as if it was located on a separate interface. Q15. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interiaces as shown in the exhibit, but there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivty. A. A loopback is not set B. The IP address is incorrect C. The Subnet mask is incorrect D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.

E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size too large F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface. Answer: B Explanation:The serial interfaces need to be in the same IP subnet for directly connected routers. As we can see, the Atlanta router is using the 192. 168. 10. 1/24 network, but the Brevard router has been configured using the 192. 168. 11. 2/24 network. It should be configured with the IP address of 192. 168. 10. 2 Incorrect Answers: A. Loopbacks are not required for this serial connection to function. C. The masks match, but the IP addresses do not.

D. Based on the diagram above, both serial interfaces are set to HDLC encapsulation, which is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces. E. The MTU is set at 1500 on each end, which is acceptable. F. Although this is true, the bandwidth statements do not need to be set the same in order for this connection to work. The bandwidth statement is used by certain routing protocols, such as OSPF and EIGRP, but they have no impact on the actual function of the serialline. Q16. Refer to the exhibit . The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS.

What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash? A. 3 MB B. 4 MB C. 5 MB D. 7 MB E. 8 MB Answer: B Explanation: Based on the output provided, the total amount of flash memory available is 8388608 bytes (8 MB), but the existing IOS is using up 3803056 bytes (3 MB), so in order to fit both IOS files into the flash the new image must be no greater than the amount of available memory, which is 4585552 bytes (4 MB). Q17. Refer to the exhibit. To what does the 128 refer in the router output O 192. 168. 12. 240/30 [110/128] via 192. 68. 12. 233,00:35:36, Serial 0? A. OSPF cost B. OSPF priority C. OSPF hop count D. OSPF ID number E. OSPF administrative distance Answer: A Explanation:The exhibit shows OSPF is been used as the routing protocol and OSPF uses Cost. The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of he overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. Q18. what does the Inside Global address represent in the configuration of NAT? A.

The summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses. B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet. C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. D. A registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network. Answer: D Explanation: With NAT, Cisco defines 4 different types of addresses as follows: * Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address configured as a parameter of the computer’s OS or received via dynamic address allocation protocols such as DHCP.

The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or service provider. * Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world. * Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside. * Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host’s owner.

The address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space. The above definitions still leave a lot to be interpreted. For this example, this document redefines these terms by first defining “local address” and “global address. ” Keep in mind that the terms “inside” and “outside” are NAT definitions. Interfaces on a NAT router are defined as “inside” or “outside” with the NAT configuration commands, ip nat inside and ip nat outside. Networks to which these interfaces connect can then be thought of as “inside” networks or “outside” networks, respectively. Local address- A local address is any address that appears on the “inside” portion of the network. * Global address- A global address is any address that appears on the “outside” portion of the network. Q19. Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on the switch TestKing1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. B.

Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume. Answer: D Explanation: Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that utilizes a special-purpose algorithm to discover physical loops in a network and effect a logical loop-free topology. STP creates a loop-free tree structure consisting of leaves and branches that span the entire Layer 2 network.

The actual mechanics of how bridges communicate and how the STP algorithm works will be discussed at length in the following topics. Note that the terms bridge and switch are used interchangeably when discussing STP. In addition, unless otherwise indicated, connections between switches are assumed to be trunks. STP keeps the port either in block or in forward states, when forward port disconnect then within the less then a minute blocked port comes into forward state so packets starts to go through new forward port.

The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) would identify the best path as well as alternate path to reach in proper destination. In a redundant link, if the primary link fails then the secondary links will automatically start after few minutes. If port Fa0/9 became disconnected, then the packets would be rerouted automatically using the Router-Switch2-Switch3 path. Q20. All WAN links inside the ABC University network use PPP with CHAP for authentication security. Which command will display the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers in the network? A. show CHAP authentication B. how interface serial0 C. debug PPP authentication D. debug CHAP authentication E. show PPP authentication chap Answer: C Explanation: Whenever you’re asked to display a process in real time, you must use a debug command as show commands do not display anything in real time. Debug PPP authentication will display the authentication process of a PPP line, including the CHAP process. Incorrect Answers: A, D, E. This will not display the output in real time. B. We wish to see information relating to CHAP, not PAP. Q21. Refer the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green.

What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three) A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure that switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables. Answer: B, D, F Explanation: Straight-through cables are used to connect hosts to a switch (or hub) and routers to a switch (or hub). See the table below Incorrect Answers: A: This would mean that there was a layer 2 issue, not layer 1.

If the problem was related to the encapsulation, the lights on the switch would indicate layer 1 activity. C: A trunk port is not required, and again if this was the problem the link lights on the switch would be on. E: This should only be used as a last resort, as this will affect all users on the switch. Q22. When upgrading the IOS image, the network administrator receives the exhibited message. What could be the cause of this error? A. The new IOS image is too large for the router flash memory. B. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router. C.

The new IOS image is not correct for this router platform. D. The IOS image on the TFTP server is corrupt. E. There is not enough disk space on the TFTP server for the IOS image. Answer: B Explanation: Either backup the IOS Image or Restore or Upgrade the IOS Image from/to TFTP Server, Network connection should be there. In Above error showing the connection timeout, the possible causes are destination unreachable; router is not connected with TFTP Server. Q23. A workgroup switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet.

What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch? A. The additions will create more collision domains. B. IP address utilization will be more efficient. C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously. D. An additional broadcast domain will be created. E. The possibility that switching loops will occur will increase dramatically. Answer: D Explanation:Additional VLANs means additional broadcast domains. VLANs define broadcast domains in a Layer 2 network. A broadcast domain is the set of all devices that will receive broadcast frames originating from any device within the set.

Broadcast domains are typically bounded by routers because routers do not forward broadcast frames. Layer 2 switches create broadcast domains based on the configuration of the switch. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch. Incorrect Answers: A. Creating new VLANs means that additional broadcast domains will be created, but not necessarily new collision domains. Besides, in a full duplex environment such as the one described here collisions are not possible. B.

Additional IP addresses will be needed in this network, as each VLAN will require a separate VLAN or a different default IP gateway to be configured. C. This is not true, as the creation of new VLANs in no way will effect the amount of bandwidth that is required. E. Since a separate Spanning Tree Process is used for each VLAN, this is not true. Q24. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three. ) A. buffering B. cut-through C. windowing D. congestion avoidance E. load balancing Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Data transmission flow control occurs at layer 4 with the help of buffering, windowing and congestion avoidance.

Q25. A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone date, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device ?. (Choose three) A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. STP E. Subinterfaces F. VLAN Answer : C & F Q26. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of issuing the following commands?

Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/5Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode access Switch1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30 A. The VLAN will be added to the database, but the VLAN information will not be passed on to the Switch2 VLAN database. B. The VLAN will be added to the database and VLAN 30 will be passed on as a VLAN to add to the Switch2 VLAN database. C. The VLAN will not be added to the database, but the VLAN 30 information will be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database. D. The VLAN will not be added to the database, nor will the VLAN 30 information be passed on as a VLAN to the Switch2 VLAN database.

Answer: A Explanation:The three VTP modes are described below: Server: This is the default for all Catalyst switches. You need at least one server in your VTP domain to propagate VLAN information throughout the domain. The switch must be in server mode to be able to create, add, or delete VLANs in a VTP domain. You must also change VTP information in server mode, and any change you make to a switch in server mode will be advertised to the entire VTP domain. Client: In client mode, switches receive information from VTP servers; they also send and receive updates, but they can’t make any changes.

Plus, none of the ports on a client switch can be added to a new VLAN before the VTP server notifies the client switch of the new VLAN. Here’s a hint: if you want a switch to become a server, first make it a client so that it receives all the correct VLAN information, then change it to a server-much easier! Transparent: Switches in transparent mode don’t participate in the VTP domain, but they’ll still forward VTP advertisements through any configured trunk links. These switches can’t add and delete VLANs because they keep their own database-one they do not share with other switches.

Transparent mode is really only considered locally significant. In our example, the switch is configured for transparent mode. In transparent mode the local VLAN information can be created but that VLAN information will not be advertised to the other switch. Q27. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes DLCI 17? A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3. B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1. C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3. D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from TK2 and TK3 to the service provider.

Answer: C Explanation :DLCI Data Link connection identifier bits:. The DLCI serves to identify the virtual connection so that the receiving end knows which information connection a frame belongs to. Note that this DLCI has only local significance. Frame relay is strictly a Layer 2 protocol suite. Q28. Refer to exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a server connected to Switch_A. Based on the results of the ntesting,what could be the problem.? A. A remote physical layer problem exists B. The host NIC is not functioning properly C.

TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host D. A local physical layer problem exists Q29. Which command will set the default gateway to 192. 168. 12. 1 on a Cisco switch? A. Switch(config)# ip default-network 192. 168. 12. 1 B. Switch(config)#ip route-default 192. 168. 12. 1 C. Switch(config)# ip default-gateway 192. 168. 12. 1 D. Switch(config)# ip route 192. 168. 12. 1 0. 0. 0. 0 Answer: C Explanation:IP default-gateway address is a global command that sets the default gateway so that the management interface can be reached from a remote network. This is the correct command used on Cisco switches.

Q30. Drag and drop Q31. When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch,which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk link? A. No VLANs B. all VLANs C. only VLANs 1-64 D. only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk Answer : B Explanation:By default a trunk link carries all the VLANs that exist on the switch. This is because all VLANs are active on a trunk link; and as long as the VLAN is in the switch’s local database, traffic for that VLAN is carried across the trunks. You can elect to selectively remove and add VLANs from a trunk link. Q32. Refer to the exhibit.

What is required to allow communication between host A and host B? A. a CSU/DSU connected to the switches with crossover cables. B. a router connected to the switch with straight-through cables. C. a router connected to the switches with crossover cables. D. a straight-through cable only E. a crossover cable only Answer: B Explanation: Straight-Through Cable :The straight-through Ethernet cable is used to connect -The host to the switch or hub -The router to the switch or hub Q33. Drag & Drop Q34. Which command is required for connectivity in a Frame Relay network if Inverse ARP is not operational?

A. frame-relay arp B. frame-relay map C. frame-relay interface-dlci D. frame-relay lmi-type Answer: B Explanation: When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its DLCIto-Layer 3 addressmapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no static address mapping is required.

If the environment does not support LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP, a Frame Relay map must be manually configured. Use the frame-relay map command to configure static address mapping. Once a static map for a given DLCI is configured, Inverse ARP is disabled on that DLCI. To configure a frame-relay static map use the following syntax. Router(config-if)#frame-relay map protocol protocol-address dlci [broadcast] [ietf | cisco] Q35. Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192. 168. 16. 0/24 to OSPF area 0? Select two A.

TestKingRouter(config)# router ospf 0 B. TestKingRouter(config)# router ospf 1 C. TestKingRouter(config)# router ospf area 0 D. TestKingRouter(config)# network 192. 168. 16. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 0 E. TestKingRouter(config)# network 192. 168. 16. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 area 0 F. TestKingRouter(config)# network 192. 168. 16. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 area 0 Answer: B, E Explanation: The valid OSPF process ID can be a value from 1-65535 (0 is not valid). The following is the correct syntax: R1(router)# router ospf 1 R1(router)# network 192. 168. 16. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 This will configure OSPF with process ID 1, and adds the 192. 68. 16/24 network to be advertised as belonging to area 0. Q36. LAB Answer : This is wrong answer in pass4sure. Apply the access-list to the fa0/1 out Q37. A network administrator needs to connect the main bank office to two branch offices. During business hours, the bank requires a redundant connection to maintain connectivity between the branch offices and the main bank. The primary connection to the branch offices should be cost effective and provide at least 512 kbps dedicated access to the branch offices. The backup connection should only be used when the primary connection goes down.

Also, the backup connection should have a relatively short setup time, and provide 128 kbps of bandwidth. Which combination of technologies meets these requirements? A. primary connection – ATM , backup connection – Frame Relay B. primary connection – Frame Relay , backup connection – dialup C. primary connection – dedicated leased line , backup connection – ISDN D. primary connection – Frame Relay , backup connection – ISDN Answer: D Q38. If the networking devices are properly configured, which topology will allow communication between host1 and host2? Answer : C Q39.

Which two topologies are using the correct type of twisted-pair cables.? (choose two) Answer : D & E Q40. Based on the information shown above, what commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two) A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# ip address 192. 168. 1. 1 255. 255. 255. 0 Router(config-if)# no shut down B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 Router(config-if)# no shutdown Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0. 1 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192. 68. 10. 1 255. 255. 255. 0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0. 2 Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20 Router(config-subif)# ip address 192. 168. 20. 1 255. 255. 255. 0 C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100 Router(config-router)# network 192. 168. 10. 0 Router(config-router)# network 192. 168. 20. 0 D. Switch1(config)# vlan database Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192. 68. 1. 1 Answer: B, E Explanation: In this exhibit, there are two different VLANs (VLAN 10 and VLAN 20). In this case, the router is required for Inter-VLAN routing. In order to properly configure Inter-VLAN Routing, we need to assign the IP address and the encapsulation type. In the router we need two sub-interfaces created we need to assign the IP as well as defined the encapsulation type for each of these. In the switch, only a trunk port can carry the information of multiple VLANs so fa0/1 is trunked on the switch as shown by answer E. Q41.

Assuming only one VLAN in the exhibit, which switch is acting as the root bridge? A. Switch1 B. Switch2 C. Switch3 D. A root bridge is not required in this network. Answer : C Answer: C Explanation: A root switch has all ports in non-blocking mode. Based on the diagram above, Switch1 and Switch2 contain ports that have been blocked by the STP process, so Switch3 must be the root bridge. Q42. The switches in the exhibit are configured with the default parameters. What can be determined from the exhibit? A. Fa0/2 on SW-1 and Fa0/2 on SW-2 are nondesignated ports. B..

Fa0/3 on SW-1 and Fa0/3 on SW-2 are attached to the lowest-cost paths to the root bridge. C.. SW-1 is the backup designated root bridge D. SW-3 is the root bridge Answer: D Q43. In order to complete a basic switch configuration, drag each switch IOS command on the left to its purpose on the right. Answer : Q44. A network associate is trying to understand the operation of the FLD Corporation by studying the network in the exhibit. The associate knows that the server in VLAN 4 provides the necessary resources to support the user hosts in the other VLANs. The associate needs to determine which interfaces are access ports.

Which interfaces are access ports? (Choose three. ) A. Switch1 – Fa 0/2 B. Switch1 – Fa 0/9 C. Switch2 – Fa 0/3 D. Switch2 – Fa 0/4 E. Switch2 – Fa 0/8 F. Router – Fa 1/0 Answer: A,C,D Explanation: Access links This type of link is only part of one VLAN, and it’s referred to as the native VLAN of the port. Any device attached to an access link is unaware of a VLAN membership the device just assumes it’s part of a broadcast domain, but it does not understand the physical network. So Access link can carry the information of only one VLAN. By default all ports are in access mode.

Switch1 Fa0/2 connected to host, it should carry the information of only one VLAN Switch 2 Fa0/9 connected to another switch so, it should be trunk Switch2 Fa0/3 connected to host so it should be in access mode. Switch 2 Fa0/4 connected to host so it should be in access mode Q45. Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands: local(config)#ip route 0. 0. 0. 0 0. 0. 0. 0 192. 168. 1. 1 local(config)#ip route 10. 1. 0. 0 255. 255. 255. 0 192. 168. 2. 2 local(config)#ip route 10. 1. 0. 0 255. 255. 0. 0 192. 168. 3. 3 Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.

Answer Q46. This graphic shows the result of an example to open a telnet connectin to router ACCESS1 from router Remote27. Which of the following command sequences will correct this problem? A. ACCESS1(config)#line console 0 ACCESS1(config-line)#password cisco B. Remote27(config)#line console 0 Remote27(config-line)#login Remote27(config-line)#password cisco C. ACCESS1(config)#line vty 0 4 ACCESS1(config-line)#login ACCESS1(config-line)#password cisco D. Remote27(config)#line vty 0 4 Remote27(config-line)#login Remote27(config-line)#password cisco E.

ACCESS1(config)#enable password cisco F. REMOTE27(config)#enable password cisco Answer: C Explanation: The following describes the correct configuration guidelines for setting up telnet access to a router: Background Information If you try to telnet to a router that does not have a Telnet password configured, you will get the following error message: Router-1#telnet 10. 3. 3. 1Trying 10. 3. 3. 1 … OpenPassword required, but none set[Connection to 10. 3. 3. 1 closed by foreign host]Configure In this section, you are presented with the information to configure a Telnet password.

Configurations This document uses this configuration: * Router-2 In order to set up the router to allow Telnet access, use the line vty command. This command allows for the configuration of Virtual Terminal (VTY) lines for remote console access. You can configure the router to accept one or more Telnet sessions. It is strongly suggested that you configure password checking with the login and password line configuration commands. The example below configures the router to accept five sessions, with the password “letmein” Verify To verify that the router is correctly configured for Telnet, issue the show running-config command.

Router-2#show running-configBuilding configuration… hostname Router-2.. line vty 0 4password letmeinlogin..! endYou should now be able to telnet to the router. Router-1#telnet10. 3. 3. 1Trying10. 3. 3. 1 … OpenUserAccess VerificationPassword:letmeinRouter-2# Q47. Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two) A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails. C. Successor routes are flagged as “active” in the routing table. D.

A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route. E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process. F. Successors are not used in EIGRP. Answer: A, D Explanation: The following are some terms relating to EIGRP: 1 Feasible Distance: The lowest calculated metric to each destination 2 Feasibility Condition: A condition that is met if a neighbor’s advertised distance to a destination is lower that the router’s Feasible Distance to that same destination. 3 Successor: The neighbor that has been selected as the next hop for a given destination based on the Feasibility Condition.

Additional info: The Feasible Condition is met when the receiving router has a Feasible Distance (FD) to a particular network and it receives an update from a neighbor with a lower advertised or Reported Distance (RD) to that network. The neighbor then becomes a Feasible Successor (FS) for that route because it is one hop closer to the destination network. There may be a number of Feasible Successors in a meshed network environment. The RD for a neighbor to reach a particular network must always be less than the FD for the local router to reach that same network.

In this way EIGRP avoids routing loops. This is why routes that have RD larger than the FD are not entered into the Topology table. Q48. A host with the address of 192. 168. 125. 34 /27 needs to be denied access to all hosts outside its own subnet. To accomplish this, complete the command in brackets, [access-list 100 deny protocol address mask any ], by dragging the appropriate options on the left to their correct placeholders on the right. Explanation : Extended access lists can evaluate many of the other fields in the Layes 3 and Layer 4 header of an IP packet.

They can evaluate source and destination IP addresses , the protocol field in the network layer header,and the port number at the Transport layer header. This gives extended access-lists the ability to make much more granular decisions when they are controlling traffic. Syntax:access-list Q49. Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three. ) A. Switch A – Fa0/0 B. Switch A – Fa0/1 C. Switch B – Fa0/0 D. Switch B – Fa0/1 E. Switch C – Fa0/0 F.

Switch C – Fa0/1 Answer: B,C,D Explanation :To remove the possibility of bridging loops, STP makes a final computation to identify one Designated Port on each network segment. Suppose that two or more switches have ports connected to a single common network segment. If a frame appears on that segment, all the bridges attempt to forward it to its destination. Recall that this behavior was the basis of a bridging loop and should be avoided. Instead, only one of the links on a segment should forward traffic to and from that segment-the one that is selected as the Designated Port.

Switches choose a Designated Port based on the lowest cumulative Root Path Cost to the Root Bridge. For example, a switch always has an idea of its own Root Path Cost, which it announces in its own BPDUs. If a neighboring switch on a shared LAN segment sends a BPDU announcing a lower Root Path Cost, the neighbor must have the Designated Port. If a switch learns only of higher Root Path Costs from other BPDUs received on a port, however, it then correctly assumes that its own receiving port is the Designated Port for the segment.

Notice that the entire STP determination process has served only to identify bridges and ports. All ports are still active, and bridging loops still might lurk in the network. STP has a set of progressive states that each port must go through, regardless of the type or identification. These states actively prevent loops from forming and are described in the next section. Note: In each determination process discussed so far, two or more links might have identical Root Path Costs. This results in a tie condition, unless other factors are considered.

All tie-breaking STP decisions are based on the following sequence of four conditions: 1. Lowest Root Bridge ID 2. Lowest Root Path Cost to Root Bridge 3. Lowest Sender Bridge ID 4. Lowest Sender Port ID The three switches have chosen their Designated Ports (DP) for the following reasons: 1. Catalyst A- Because this switch is the Root Bridge, all its active ports are Designated Ports, by definition. At the Root Bridge, the Root Path Cost of each port is 0. 2. Catalyst B- Catalyst A port 1/1 is the DP for the Segment A-B because it has the lowest Root Path Cost (0). Catalyst B port 1/2 is the DP for segment B-C.

The Root Path Cost for each end of this segment is 19, determined from the incoming BPDU on port 1/1. Because the Root Path Cost is equal on both ports of the segment, the DP must be chosen by the next criteria-the lowest Sender Bridge ID. When Catalyst B sends a BPDU to Catalyst C, it has the lowest MAC address in the Bridge ID. Catalyst C also sends a BPDU to Catalyst B, but its Sender Bridge ID is higher. Therefore, Catalyst B port 1/2 is selected as the segment’s DP. 3. Catalyst C- Catalyst A port 1/2 is the DP for Segment A-C because it has the lowest Root Path Cost (0).

Catalyst B port 1/2 is the DP for Segment B-C. Therefore, Catalyst C port 1/2 will be neither a Root Port nor a Designated Port. As discussed in the next section, any port that is not elected to either position enters the Blocking state. Where blocking occurs, bridging loops are broken. Q50. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two) A. Network A – 172. 16. 3. 48/26 B. Network A – 172. 16. 3. 128/25 C. Network A – 172. 16. 3. 192/26 D. Link A – 172. 16. 3. 0/30 E.

Link A – 172. 16. 3. 40/30 F. Link A – 172. 16. 3. 112/30 Answer: B,D Explanation:If a network address is subnetted, the first subnet obtained after subnetting the network address is called subnet zero. Consider a Class B address, 172. 16. 0. 0. By default the Class B address 172. 16. 0. 0 has 16 bits reserved for representing the host portion, thus allowing 65534 (216-2) valid host addresses. If network 172. 16. 0. 0/16 is subnetted by borrowing three bits from the host portion, eight (23) subnets are obtained. The table below is an example showing the subnets obtained by subnetting the address 172. 6. 0. 0, the resulting subnet mask, the corresponding broadcast addresses, and the range of valid host addresses. In the example above, the first subnet (subnet 172. 16. 0. 0/19) is called subnet zero. The class of the network subnetted and the number of subnets obtained after subnetting have no role in determining subnet zero. It is the first subnet obtained when subnetting the network address. Also, when you write the binary equivalent of the subnet zero address, all the subnet bits (bits 17, 18, and 19 in this case) are zeros. Subnet zero is also known as the all-zeros subnet.

In this example, link A will use the zero subnet of 172. 16. 30. /30, while network A will need a /25 to support the 120 hosts. Answer C will support up to 128 (126 usable) hosts while options E and F will only support 62 usable IP addresses. Q51. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two. ) A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. o obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers Answer: D,E Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is primarily used to obtain protocol addresses of neighboring devices and discover the platform of those devices. CDP can also be used to show information about the interfaces your router uses. CDP is media- and protocol-independent, and runs on all Ciscomanufactured equipment including routers, bridges, access servers, and switches.

CDP runs on all media that support Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP), including local-area network (LAN), Frame Relay, and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) physical media. CDP runs over the data link layer only. Therefore, two systems that support different network-layer protocols can learn about each other. Q52. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the following line into the router. Tidmore1(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0 Tidmore1(config)# no ip access-group 106 in Tidmore1(config)# interface serial 0/0 Tidmore1(config)# ip access-group 106 in What is the effect of this configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the following line into the router. Tidmore1(config)# access-list 106 deny tcp 192. 168. 254. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 any eq www What is the effect of this configuration? A. The change has no effect on the packets being filtered. B. All traffic from the 192. 168. 254. 0 LAN to the Internet is permitted. C. Web pages from the Internet cannot be accessed by hosts in the 192. 168. 254. 0 LAN. D. No hosts in the 192. 168. 254. 0 LAN except 192. 168. 254. 7 can access web pages from the Internet.

Answer: B Explanation: Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an “implied deny” for traffic that is not permitted. A single-entry ACL with only one “deny” entry has the effect of denying all traffic.

You must have at least one “permit” statement in an ACL or all traffic is blocked. In this example, since the statement will be added to the end of the access list, and since there is already an entry that permits all IP traffic, the www traffic will be allowed, all traffic will never reach this access list entry. Q53. Hotspot Answer : SIM 1 – The Lan servers,Management,Production and no-where will be removed from existing switches SIM 2 – SW-AC2 SIM 3 – Fa0/3 , Fa 0/4 , Fa 0/12 SIM 4 – Fa 0/3 , Fa 0/9 , Fa 0/12 SIM 5 – 192. 168. 44. 254 Q54.

What kind of cable should be used to establish a trunked line between two Catalyst 2950 switches? A. A straight-through cable B. An EIA/TIA-232 serial cable C. An auxiliary cable D. A modem cable E. A cross-over cable Answer: E Explanation: A crossover cable is used to connect two of the same device types, or devices from the same OSI layer. Q55. Which of the following statements most describe the network shown in the graphic (choose two) A. There are two broadcast domains in the network. B. There are four broadcast domains in the network. C. There are six broadcast domains in the network. D.

There are four collision domains in the network. E. There are five collision domains in the network. F. There are seven collision domains in the network. Answer: A, F Explanation: We have two broadcast domains total in this network, one with the Sales network and another consisting of the Production network. We have 5 computers and one port for E1 so we have 6 collision domains because a switch is being used in the Production department and one collision domain for the Sales department because a hub is being used there Q56. Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? Choose two. ) A. the IP address of Switch 1 B. the MAC address of Switch 1 C. the IP address of Host C D. the MAC address of Host C E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface Answer: CF Explanation: The correct answer should be destination IP address of the server. The source and destination IP address should not change throughout the duration of the data transmission . The destination MAC addresses belong to the nearest router for traffic that is destined to a host that is on a different network.

Incorrect Answers: A, B: The IP address and MAC address should never be used as the destination address, unless the traffic is actually meant to be sent to the switch itself. D. The MAC address used as the destination will address will come from the Ethernet port of the router, because the host resides on a different network. E. Destination MAC addresses belong to the nearest router, but not the nearest IP address. Q57. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other but are unable to communicate with the hosts on different VLANs.

What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? A. An additional switch B. A transceiver C. A router D. A repeater E. A hub Answer: C Explanation: Network devices in different VLANs cannot communicate with one another without a router to route traffic between the VLANs. In most network environments, VLANs are associated with individual networks or subnetworks. Q58. Refer to the exhibit. The network has been configured with STP disabled. HostA sends an ARP request for the IP address of a site on the Internet. What will happen to this ARP request? (Choose two. A. Because the ARP request is a broadcast, SW-A will not forward the request. B. SW-A will convert the broadcast to a unicast and forward it to SW-D. C. The switches will propagate the broadcast, creating a broadcast storm. D. From a port on SW-A, HostA will receive an ARP reply containing the MAC address. E. From the Ethernet interface of RouterX, HostA will receive an ARP reply that contains the MAC address. F. The switches will propagate the broadcast until the TTL of the frame reduces to 0. Then the frame will be discarded. Answer: CE Q59. Refer to the exhibit.

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three. ) A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports. B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables. C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port. D. Ensure the switch has power. E. Reboot all of the devices. F. Reseat all cables. Answer : B , D , F Straight-through cables are used to connect hosts to a switch (or hub) and routers to a switch (or hub).

See the table below: Incorrect Answers: A: This would mean that there was a layer 2 issue, not layer 1. If the problem was related to the encapsulation, the lights on the switch would indicate layer 1 activity. C: A trunk port is not required, and again if this was the problem the link lights on the switch would be on. E: This should only be used as a last resort, as this will affect all users on the switch. Q60. How should a router that is being used in a Frame Relay network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates? A.

Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the subinterface.. B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a point-to-point line to support multicast and broadcast traffic. C. Configure many sub-interfaces on the same subnet. D. Configure a single sub-interface to establish multiple PVC connections to multiple remote router interfaces Answer: A Explanation: Point-To-Point Subinterfaces: The concept of subinterfaces was originally created in order to better handle issues caused by splithorizon over Non-Broadcast Multiple Access (NBMA) networks (e. g. frame relay, X. 5) and distancevector based routing protocols (e. g. IPX RIP/SAP, AppleTalk). Split-horizon dictates that a routing update received on an interface cannot be retransmitted out onto the same interface. This rule holds even if the routing update was received on one frame relay PVC and destined to retransmit out onto another frame relay PVC. Referring to figure 2, this would mean that sites B and C can exchange routing information with site A, but would not be able to exchange routing information with each other. Splithorizon does not allow Site A to send routing updates received from Site B on to Site C and vice versa.

Note: For TCP/IP, Cisco routers can disable split-horizon limitations on all frame relay interfaces and multipoint subinterfaces and do this by default. However, split-horizon cannot be disabled for other protocols like IPX and AppleTalk. These other protocols must use subinterfaces if dynamic routing is desired. By dividing the partially-meshed frame relay network into a number of virtual, point-to-point networks using subinterfaces, the split-horizon problem can be overcome. Each new point-to-point subnetwork is assigned its own network number.

To the routed protocol, each subnetwork now appears to be located on separate interfaces (Figure 3). Routing updates received from Site B on one logical point-to-point subinterface can be forwarded to site C on a separate logical interface without violating split horizon. Q61. Answer : Q62. LAB 1. Sw-DS1 2. The VLAN Servers ,Management , production , and no where will be removed from existing switches 3. Fa0/3 , Fa0/4 , Fa0/12 4. 192. 168. 44. 254 5. Fa0/12 Q63. Answer : Q64. Refer to the exhibit. Which ports could safely be configured with PortFast? (Choose two. ) A. Switch1 – port Fa1/2 B.

Switch2 – port Fa1/2 C. Switch1 – port Fa1/3 D. Switch2 – port Fa1/3 E. Switch1 – port Fa1/1 F. Switch2 – port Fa1/1 Answer: CD Explanation: Using Port Fast: 1. Immediately brings an interface configured as an access or trunk port to the forwarding state from a blocking state, bypassing the listening and learning states 2. Normally used for single server/workstation can be enabled on a trunk So, Port fast can only be enabled to a switch port attaching to workstation or a server Q65. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192. 68. 12. 64 0. 0. 0. 63 area 0 After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three. ) A. FastEthernet0 /0 B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1. 102 E. Serial0/1. 103 F. Serial0/1. 104 Answer: B ,C , D Explanation: OSPF uses the concept of wildcard masks much like access list filters. OSPF network matches are done using the network number and wildcard bits.

The network number is the network portion of the IP address, with the host bits all set to zero. The wildcard bits determine which portion of the address the access list will act on. Only bits set to zero are acted upon (bits set to one are ignored. ) This is the exact opposite of a netmask. Remember that this number is in bits, and you will always have all zeros to the left of the first one, and all ones to the right of the last zero. The table below shows some examples of netmasks and wildcard bits. In this example, the 192. 168. 12. 64 0. 0. 0. 63 will comprise of all interfaces with an IP address in the 192. 68. 12. 64-127 range. Q. 66. Refer to the exhibit. The switches have been configured with static VLANs as shown. During testing, the network administrator notices that VLAN 20 on SwitchA has no connectivity with VLAN 30 on SwitchB. What should the network administrator do? A. Configure the interconnected ports on SwitchA and SwitchB into access mode. B. Connect the two switches with a straight-through cable. C. Add a Layer 3 device to connect VLAN 20 and VLAN 30. D. Configure the management VLAN with IP addresses. E. Ensure that the VTP passwords match on both switches. Answer : C

Explanation: Network devices in different VLANs cannot communicate with one another without a router to route traffic between the VLANs. In most network environments, VLANs are associated with individual networks or subnetworks. For example, in an IP network, each subnetwork is mapped to an individual VLAN. Configuring VLANs helps control the size of the broadcast domain and keeps local traffic local. However, when an end station in one VLAN needs to communicate with an end station in another LAN, interVLAN communication is required. This communication is supported by interVLAN routing.

You configure one or more routers to route traffic to the appropriate destination VLAN. he diagram below shows a basic interVLAN routing topology. SwitchA is in VLAN 10 and SwitchB is in VLAN20. The router has an interface in each VLAN. Basic InterVLAN Routing Topology: When HostA in VLAN10 needs to communicate with HostB in VLAN10, it sends a packet addressed to that host. SwitchA forwards the packet directly to HostB, without sending it to the router. When HostA sends a packet to HostC in VLAN20, SwitchA forwards the packet to the router, which receives the traffic on the VLAN10 interface.

The router checks the routing table, determines the correct outgoing interface, and forwards the packet out the VLAN20 interface to SwitchB. SwitchB receives the packet and forwards it to HostC. Q67. A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? A. service password-encryption access-list 1 permit 192. 168. 1. 0 0. 0. 0. 255 line vty 0 4 login password cisco access-class 1 B. nable password secret line vty 0 login cisco C. service password-encryption line vty 1 login password cisco D. service password-encryption line vty 0 4 login password cisco Answer: C Q68. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATUS=ACTIVE refer to in the output of the show framerelay pvc command? A. The PVC is experiencing congestion. B. The Frame Relay switch is correctly programmed with the DLCI and is operational. C. The router is actively broadcasting to establish a link to the Frame Relay switch. D. The router is connected to the local Frame Relay switch, but not to the far end device.

Answer: B Explanation: The Frame Relay switch uses LMI to report the status of configured PVCs. The three possible PVC states are as follows: Active state – Indicates that the connection is active and that routers can exchange data. This is the state of an operational PVC. Inactive state – Indicates that the local connection to the Frame Relay switch is working, but the remote router connection to the Frame Relay switch is not working. Deleted state – Indicates that no LMI is being received from the Frame Relay switch, or that there is no service between the CPE router and Frame Relay switch.

Q69. Answer: Q70. How can an administrator determine if a router has been configured when it is first powered up? A. A configured router prompts for a password B. A configured router goes to the privileged mode prompt C. An un configured router goes into the setup dialog D. An un configured router goes to the enable mode prompt Answer: C Explanation: If non-configured router is started, then goes to setup mode and ask for minimum configuration i. e hostname, ip address to interfaces, enable password etc. If router is already configured boots by implementing startup-config.

Q71. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would create the output shown at the bottom of the graphic? A. Router# show ip eigrp topology B. Router# show ip route C. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors D. Router# show ip ospf route E. Router# show ip ospf database Answer: A Explanation: show ip eigrp topology To display entries in the Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) topology table, use the show ip eigrp topology command in EXEC mode. show ip eigrp topology [as-number | [[ip-address] mask]] [active| all-links| pending| summary| zero-successors] Syntax Description as-number

Example: The following is sample output from the show ip eigrp topology command: Router# show ip eigrp t


I'm Belinda!

Would you like to get a custom essay? How about receiving a customized one?

Check it out